Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 03:53
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Consequuntur dolor explicabo ipsa autem vel eos et.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
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There's no rule.